| This question <116|111> overall <109|111> Sitka: <52|165>. |
| Question 93: Is the reference to the Hebrew here an antisemitic slip? |
| [110] Sitka: I think that Marx in using the Hebrew language was being somewhat antisemitic. He used it to help him point out that the “language of commodities also has .... plenty of other more or less correct dialects.” What I left out was when Marx said, “apart from Hebrew”, which I think he used as an example of a language which doesn't have the dialects to support the language of commodities. I'm sure if Hebrew doesn't that there are other languages that don't either, why use Hebrew? I do feel that there is an argument for both sides, and that the other could be just as true. |
| Hans: I think that Marx in using the Hebrew language was being somewhat antisemitic. He used it to help him point out that the “language of commodities also has .... plenty of other more or less correct dialects.” What I left out was when Marx said, “apart from Hebrew”, which I think he used as an example of a language which doesn't have the dialects to support the language of commodities. |
| No, his intention was to say that Hebrew is one dialect of the commodity language, and there are also others. The word “also” is in the text, and the German leaves no doubt that this is what he meant. Marx's antisemitism is therefore much more blatant than you think. |
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