This question <109|109> overall <112|114> Hans: <90|114>.  
  Exam Question 74: Give economic, not philosophical reasons why a commodity must appear as what it is (use your own words).   
  [113] Hans: Answer to 74   SF's message [109] is almost the right answer to Question 74. The only quibble which I have is that SF did not start with the right definition of a commodity here. See p. 41, right column, of my Annotations: a commodity is use value and value, the product of useful labor and the congelation of abstract labor. This is what a commodity “is”. Then Marx implicitly uses the argument in 138:1 that the commodity must appear as what it is, i.e., it must have a double form reflecting these two inner aspects of it. The use value form is its bodily form, its “natural” form, but Marx says it must also have a value form. He will use the whole Section 3 of Chapter One to derive this value form: the commodity's exchange value with other commodities is only the most primitive of value forms, the best developed and most important one is the commodity's price, i.e., its exchange value with money. Question 74 was asking: why must a commodity appear as what it is? It is a review question, i.e., here my Annotations are asking something which they just finished trying to explain. The economic reasoning which Marx hid behind this quasi-Hegelian argument is, and this is the answer to Question 74: commodities are produced privately, and they must enter into some social context in order to socially validate their private production decisions. This social context is the exchange, therefore commodities must have an exchange value or a price in order to prepare them for the exchange. All this is contained in SF's answer, and SF used his own words, but I hope that what I just wrote made things a little clearer for everybody.   
 
 
 
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