This question <330-11|330-37> overall <330-26|330-28> Pikk: <330-26|330-31>.  
  Exam Question 154: Why are commodities not interested in each other's use values?   
  [330-27] Pikk: Pikk4   Marx states that for the owner, his commodity possess no direct use-value. So, my commodities have no use-values before they change hands. This brings me back to my own example about procreation. The only way I can bring use value to my sexuality is to bring use-values to others as a bearer of exchange. By giving myself pleasure, I am hopefully giving pleasure to someone else. The act of exchange puts the two in relation with each other as values. Commodities must be realized as values before they can be realized as use-values.   
  Hans: You write:   
  By giving myself pleasure, I am hopefully giving pleasure to someone else.   
  I thought the metaphor you are using suggests that only by giving pleasure to others can you give pleasure to yourself. Staying in this metaphor, 154 seems to say that commodities are not interested in pleasure. Is this true, and if so, why not?   
 
 
 
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