This question <339|59> overall <54|56> Wight: <527|132>.  
  Question 52: In [mecw29] 274 Marx writes “It is as if the different individuals had thrown their labor time together and allocated different portions of the labor time at their joint disposal to the various use values.” Why the formulation “It is as if?” Have they done it or haven't they?   
  [55] Wight: The formulation “It is as if” is used by Marx to illustrate the sweeping generality of the entire statement. Marx is aggregating all of the labor of the entire population. There are a few incorrect assumptions in this view of labor. First, it assumes that all laborers are willing participants, which we know they are not in the capitalist system. Secondly, the underlying assumption that all people perform the same amount of labor i.e. equal in efficiency, time, and quality of tasks completed is incorrect. I think Marx is trying to point out these discrepencies and inconsistencies, hence the formulation at the beginning of the statement. In response to wether or not people have behaved this way, I would say that they have in a sense. Basically, you can aggregate anything in the economy and generalize for all involved parties. But, where this theory falls short is in not taking account for individual contributions. Every person works differently and no credit is given for good workers vs. poor workers. Marx's statement just views labor as one huge, entire aggregated concept. It is my proposition that this is why Marx begins this passage “It is as if,” because it can appear to be so and still not be accurate.   
 
 
 
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