This question <59|173-1> overall <68|70> Fritz: <68|70>.  
  Question 52: In [mecw29] 274 Marx writes “It is as if the different individuals had thrown their labor time together and allocated different portions of the labor time at their joint disposal to the various use values.” Why the formulation “It is as if?” Have they done it or haven't they?   
  [69] Fritz: why ask why?   Wight wrote in [55]  
  But, where this theory falls short is in not taking account for individual contributions. Every person works differently and no credit is given for good workers vs. poor workers. Marx's statement just views labor as one huge, entire aggregated concept.   
  What of the human behaviorial assumptions you studied in microecon 201? Does microecon 201 theory “fall short” because every person is not a 100% self-interested, pleasure maximizing agent?   
  why do economic theories make assumptions and break things down into smaller pieces?   
  why ask why?   
  Cheers. Fritz   
 
 
 
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