This question <51|73> overall <71|73> Hans: <66|73>.

Question 57: How do you explain the fact described here by Marx that the price of many scarce goods is below their value?

[72] Hans: Now it is scarce, now it is not   In [35], answering 57, Angela wrote

In our economy, we usually produce the scare goods at frist and then we want to produce as more quantities of scare goods as we can. Because of this reason, we will try to improve and develope the new methods of production process by technological applicability or others in order to increase the quantities of scare good. So in the market, the price of the scare goods usually is lower because the supplies are greater then the demands.

You are saying: if something is scarce, then we produce so much of it that it is no longer scarce, and then its price falls below its value. But we start out producing so much of it because initially the price was above the value.

Your next paragraph is just a summary of things from the study guide, I do not see the relevance of it for the present question. I will omit it here.

Finally, in your last sentence, you found a proof in Marx that the labor theory of value is wrong:

The price of the scare goods is not determined by the value of a commodity, because of the above reasons, the price of many scare goods is below thier value.

This is the only thought in your whole submission.

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