| This question <45|127-1> overall <46|48> Hans: <45|48>. |
| Question 88: Does skilled labor (i.e., labor for which schooling and training is necessary, for instance the labor of an engineer) produce more value per hour than unskilled labor (like the labor of a janitor)? Explain! |
| [47] Hans: Contradictions Generating Indeterminacy Brutal [31] first says that yes, skilled labor produces more value than unskilled labor, and then he adds: |
| However, we cannot say that this difference in labor value is due to differences in education or any other factor (or any specified combination of factors). In fact, Marx does not try to define what separates simple and complicated labor because there are so many factors that have an effect and most cannot be quantified. |
| Brutal seems to be thinking here, just as Martin after him in [33], of the many accidental circumstances affecting the price of labor: certain skills may be in short supply and it will take several years until more people have studied them, other skills are well organized and maintain a semi-monopoly position, still others are such that the bosses need someone who is on their side and therefore they have to pay that person more. |
| Such accidental circumstances have their effects not only in the labor markets but also in the other markets. Their presence does not mean that there is no law determining commodity prices, and it is also not in contradiction to the labor theory of value. The labor theory of value says that there is a tendency for prices to be proportional to labor content, but it does not deny the possibility that other forces may prevent this tendency to have effect, even over a long time. But as long as there are markets, this tendency is there too, and in the long run one can expect it to succeed. |
| Now regarding the reduction of complex to simple labor, I hold the view, and I also think this was Marx's view, that there is no underlying tendency asserting itself in the long run which carries the day after all the other factors have had time to play out. Why not? Because different labor powers are qualitatively different, and there is no logical way to equate them. By trading their commodities on the market, the members of society act as if all labor powers were equal, but in reality they are not 100 percent equal. This is a contradiction, and this contradiction creates indeterminacy in the reduction of the different types of labor to simple labor. |
| One short remark about how I understand the notion that labor powers are equal. If all members of society were identical twins, then everybody could potentially do the same as everybody else. In this case, labor powers would be very equal. In real life, it is still true that for every job there are enough people who could do the job, so that the bidding for this job is not based on the peculiarities of the job, but on the expenditure of labor time which is a general factor common to all jobs. |
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