| This question <75|74> overall <76|78> Hans: <76|78>. |
| Question 166: How does Marx's use of the term “fetishism” compare with its modern dictionary definition? |
| [77] Hans: Putting the Finger on it Both Maverick [74] and Jedi [75] gave very good answers. Instead of strictly making a comparison of the two concepts of fetishism, Maverick showed that Marx's theory of the fetish-like character of the commodity gives an explanation of the prevalence of “fetishism” (in the usual dictionary definition) in our society. Unfortunately his second paragraph, which is supposed to explain it all, is too unclear. Jedi [75] broadens the question and puts his finger on the basic issues of the presently assigned readings: |
| (1) Similar to Maverick he states that the ‘fetishism’ in the modern dictionary definition is not a character flaw but the result of the darkness and isolation that comes with commodity production. |
| (2) The market contaminates our values. |
| (3) It is an absurd circle to first invest social power in the commodity and then try to take advantage of it. |
| (4) Capitalism depends for its functioning on people being deceived. |
| Jedi cut through all the verbiage down to the basic message. Congratulations! |
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