This question <13|13> overall <11|13> Minaret: <677|70>. graded A–  
  Question 42: If the exchange-value of a commodity cannot be derived from its use-value, then a used commodity should have the same exchange-value as a new commodity, as long as it is not broken. Right or wrong?   
  [12] Minaret: Used Commodities.   Wrong. Although the exchange-value cannot be derived from the commodity's use-value, commodities have a separate second quality: their ability to be exchanged on the market. An apple core can be sold as an apple but would someone buy it as an apple? Probably not. The apple (the carrier) has lost its use-value and therefore has lost its exchange-value. The exchange-value of the commodity decreases in proportion to the use-value diminishing. Another idea is that when the commodity is used it actually becomes a different good. For example, you may not be able to sell an apple core as an apple, but you may be able to sell the seeds from the core. As a separate good. A different use-value. And likewise it would then have a different exchange-value based on the demand for apple seeds.   
  Hans: Good and thoughtful contribution.   
 
 
 
  Students enrolled for Econ 5080 in 2009fa are invited to give feedback to the above message
Pseudonym:      UofU ID:  
Text: