This question <17|17> overall <10|12> Diesel: <572|24>.  
  Question 55: Why does Marx write in 127:1 “the valid exchange-values,” instead of simply “the exchange-values”?   
  [11] Diesel: Marx writes concerning the price of commodities and and states that “proportions change with time and place dependent on the circumstances of the exchange.” Also, “exchange values of a commodity are determined by the extraneous circumstances of the exchange.” David Ricardo explains best the term rent. If landlord A produces at 1/2 the cost of landlord B, then landlord A has 1/2 rent on landlord B. The valid exchange values of a commodity cannot be set because the economy is not a fixed environment. If a “landlord” owns more fertile land in agricultural terms then his cost of production is lowered, meaning he can decrease the prices of his goods. The term valid I believe is used as the most up to date cost of a commodity so as to increase capital.   
 
 
 
  Students enrolled for Econ 5080 in 2009fa are invited to give feedback to the above message
Pseudonym:      UofU ID:  
Text: