This question <470|499> overall <493-2|495> TheDude: <450|563-13>. graded B weight 50%  
  Question 647: Explain the following passage: “After the capitalist has consumed the equivalent of his original capital, the value of his present capital merely represents the sum total of surplus-value appropriated by him without payment. Not a single atom of the value of his old capital continues to exist.”   
  [494] TheDude: Old capital no longer exists.   I completely agree with what was stated in [470], “I think what Marx is saying is that when the equivalent of capitalist's original capital is consumed, the value of the capital he has from that point forward is representative of the surplus value, his worker's labor-power, has acquired for him.” What Marx is saying in this passage is that once capital is consumed, it can no longer exist. The only capital the capitalist has is the surplus-value produced by the laborers. This is the value created above and beyond how much he has to pay them in wages. According to Marx, there is no equity. Whatever the capitalist purchases, whether it be a warehouse or a machine, it doesn't have one single atom of the value of the original capital; its only value comes from the surplus-value created by laborers using/working in it.   
  Hans: You are saying very little [470] didn't say.   
 
 
 
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