This question <110|88> overall <76|78> DP: <619|133>. graded B–  
  Question 202: In 158:4, Marx writes the following about the general form of value: “Only this form, therefore, has the effect of relating the commodities with each other as values, or enables them to appear to each other as exchange-values.” Why didn't he write: “or enables them to appear to each other as values”?   
  [77] DP: “exchange values”   The reason Marx did not leave out the “or enables them to appear to each other as exchange-values” was because this would contradict the general form of value. The simple and expanded forms merely expressed the value of a commodity as coming from its physical body or use-value without evident, purposeful exchange values being present. The simple form “appears in practice only in the early stages, when the products of labor are converted into commodities by accidental occasional exchanges.” This suggests that there is no exchange value. The expanded form is such that cattle being the example used in the text, as being exchanged habitually for other commodities, and once again no apparent exchange values are denoted. In the general form the commodities are measured as equivalents and it no longer matter about the use-value, but its “direct exchangeability”. It can buy all other commodities but there is an exchange value present. When talking about the general form, exchangeable value must be present.   
  Hans: I don't know what definition of exchange-value you are using that allows you to say that in the Simple and Expanded form there is no exchange-value. Commodities can have exchange-values without being able to appear to each other as exchange-values. This is like loving someone without being able to tell the person that you love him or her.   
 
 
 
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