This question <53|59> overall <55|59> Gza: <41|65>. (content A– form 90%)  
  Question 38: Do things have use-value because people use them, or do people use things because they have use-value?   
  [56] Gza: use-value debate.   i think everyone has good arguments about the whole debate of whether use is constructed in the utilization of an object or if use-value exists independent of actual use. however, i think that Marx isn't necessarily drawing a dichotomy between the constructionalist camp and the ontological advocates. instead he starts his argument by suggesting that use-value can only be realized when a physical commodity is in hand and is thus utilized, a type of constructionalism that suggests that use-value is in a way made through use. However, is argument then progresses by arguing that whenever someone uses something, the action of use presupposes a value that would logically have to preexist the initial use, or else why would the person pick up the object and try to use it. in a way Marx seems to offer a type of permutation between the binary schools of thought. it seems that we would all have to agree that things exist on some level, the question comes down to whether essence precedes existence or existence preceding essence. based on our linguistic frame of understanding, which is somewhat limited, logically i have to assume that essence/things and therefore use-value precedes or comes before the ability to use.   
  i could be wrong and am sure that many would great arguments against that theory, i'm not sure if i fully believe it myself, but it seems to at lest logically answer the debate, even if it is on some level a permutation.   
  Hans: I realize that this was supposed to be an informal comment, but even in such informal comments you should work on making your writing clearer, so that it can be understood also by those who are not familiar with the philosophical terms you are using.   
 
 
 
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